Відео

the first part is 0 beacuse for anyone who does machine learning, this correaltes to linear regression model where if we were to identify the cost function we would subtract the [original value - predicted value] parametaized at a certain parameter, however the parameter here is the centre value and since the difference betrween the original value and the first predicted value are almost 0, they are almost equal as the x << [as in a very small value], the next value is when we update the parameter and do the calculation, preduct the hypothesis again 1:04 here we are updating the parameter from theta = 0 to 1 to 2 to 3 to 4 and so on where parameter 0 has NO VALUE SO THATS TECHNICALLY 0 however PARAMETER 1 DENOTES THE GROUND STATE VALUE AS IN THE FIRST MINIMUM VALUE FROM THERE ON WE CAN EITHER GET A LOWER VALUE OR A HIGHER VALUE OR ALTERNATING BALUES 1:09 so to identify why the x variable reaches 0, IT IS NOT 0 YET!!!!!! is if we were to find the derivative [ lim as x approaches infinite, V(x - xo) - V(x) / x - x0 will give you a somewhat gradient value. Again comparting it to ML, pressume that you want to get a score value, an accurate score value so parameter 0 is lets say 10 and parameter 1 [this is the value that the machine learning model has predicted a value] lets say the value is 10.43 so [10.43 - 10] (note this wil be an absolute value magnitude value) / parameter 1 - parameter 0 so (0.43)**2 / (1) which is almost 0 so it apprahces 0 6:23 pressume X = 0 V(0) = 0 at parameter 0 V'(0) = 1/2(k*(x)**2) where derivative of it wil be dv/dx(1/2kx**2) ill be kx and k*0 is 0 V''(0) = d**2 / dx**2 (1/2kx**2) would be d/dx(kx) = k now there is no x and V''(0) would be just K there is NO X V'''(0) is simply the derivative of K = 0 and from here on all you will get is 0 8:35 its like locally weighted regression where you pressume a certain training model based on the local datas where higher the peak higher the weight and higher the peak region, probability of that specific value within the given algorithm is high. 1/2kx**2 and if you plot lets say x from 3 to 9, then the probability that those values from 3 to 9 would be high as the weight of those values are high [due to the peak amplitude] 14:12 -hBAR**2 = (hBAR / i) ** 2 = hBAR**2 / i**2 = hBAR**2 * (-1)

0:00 to 1:20 to better understand, we know that the infnite square well, the width of a well is from 0 to +infinite and incresase in potential deacreases the force and vise versa so the potential is 0 within the walls themselves however potential is infinite in the space region force is 0 causing the particles to be more distinct and vise versa 5:51 for anyone wondering how is it performed, 1) d**2X / dt**2 = -kx / m 2) X(t) = e**rt 3) (d**2 / dt**2)e**(rt) = (-k/m)(e**rt) 4) assume d**2 / dt**2 = r**2 5)r**2 e**(rt) = (-k/m)(e**rt) 6)cut off e**rt so r wo; be +-isquareroot(k/m) 7)e**(itheta) = CONSTANT1sin(itheta) + CONSTANT2icos(itheta) 8)instead of iTHETA use OMEGAt and replace the iTHETA inside the angles with OMEGAt 12:09 taylor series equation f(A) + d/da [f(a)] / 1! + d**2 / da**2 [f(a- a0)] / 2! + ....... norm equation = d / d(a) ** (n) [f(a)] / (n)! for n being from 0 to infininte however taylor POLYNIMAL IS THE SAME but 0 to some fininte value a0 denotes the centre value and a denotes the final output approximatew value 15:43 the reason 0.1 is used I am assuming that the approximate value was 1.1 and the centre value was 1

At last you returned to Griffiths 💐💐

Thank you from Algeria

an honest thanks to you sir. im currently highschooler and im joining a national physics olympiad in indonesia. your lecture is a very helping one to let me understand electrodynamics.

for anyone confused in 2:53, having a ground state particle of 0 would mean 1) the classical particle is being focused on . What does that mean? this means that the particle is stationary at that specific point however a quantum particle will never have a 0 energy state furthermore, te lowest energy state is greater than 0 VERY SMALL but greater than 0. secondly having energy 0 would violate the HUP because 1) it dictates the position and 2)momentm of the particle thus violating the overall constraint when saying energy is 0.

11:13 why would we assume K to be the square root of the derived expression?

Great video, seems to be exactly what I'm looking for, but one thing. My Print and Web Preview does not look like yours. Mine is structured like this: Contents Heading 1 Title Heading 2 Ηεαδινγ 3 5 Anyway to change this to meet your structure? Thank you!

Thank you sir

An excellent vedio

Sir code of activation licinse doesnot work

Thank you bro. You save my couple of hours. This is not difficult at all, but I really had no idea how to find it until I watched this video.....

Hi professor, please I need your help ...I wanted to install the origine but it doesn't work 😢 it shows like a green image where's the problem!?

Hello, thank you for your explanation, it was helpful. Please , for my case I have an experimental data for 7 mesured in function of frequency, so as a result I have more peaks and I don't know how can I do your method ?

Thankyou so much sir its really helpful to me❤😊

Sir, it doesn't work, they tell me: "the email address you submitted did not match our criteria. We will review this email account manually to ensure that is from a valid College or university in US/CAN." I submit with my university email address, l didn't know what is the problem !

Sir, Is it available to all countries?

Thank u so much, dear sir. You have set aside a few minutes for the day's task.

Perfect video

6:51 for anyone whos confused, it is [ONE PART INTEGRATION] - 0 - [another part integration] now ANOTHER PART INTEGRATION HAS BEEN SOLVED WHICH IS [0 - THAT INTEGRATION PART] and we just replaced the ANOTHER PART INTEGRATION with the [0 - THAT INTEGRATTION PART] so finally it ends up as [ONE PART INTEGRATION - 0 - THAT INTEGRATION PART] and [ONE PART INTEGRATION AND THAT INTEGTATION ARE THE SAME JUST ADDED BECAUSE(MINUS MINUS IS +)

0:33 limit as x approaches infinite, try doing the divergence test, replace the x with infinite, ANYTHING / infinite is 0 so the entire thing becomes 0 because both the x's in two different derivations will turn outp to be 0 and 0 * anyhting is 0 and by INTEGRAL TEST IT IS PROOVED THAT IT DOES REACH 0 [POSITIVE, CONTINOUS, DEACREASING] 1:41 to proov that it reaches 0 do the divergence test then the integral test [to proov the integral test can be used, make sure its positive, continous and deacreasing]

10:57 for anyone who didnt understnad, since there is a positive denominator, we would multiply with a negative denominator value so denominator (ihbar) so if i say (1 / ihBAR) i would simply multiply (1 / ihBAR) * (-ihBAR / -ihBAR) to balance out the equation

im an indian student and applausing your great work.....but here are a mistake in lecture A.(B X C)=B.(C X A) BUT YOU USED A.(B X C)=B.(A X C) BTW your work is priceless..

Thank you so much for this informative video. Is there any way to add subscripts in the axis tick labels?

AOA sir E mail adress to university ka deya phr mail hamay kesy mily gi

11:57 the difference betrween thes two is just one is the norm derivation oscillated around the circile ina standing wave once wile the other denotes the exact same but n more times

3:37 there will be something called infinite potential well. If a classical particle is focvused on, assume that particle being in an infinite square well so ou know the distinctive nature of where the particle exists however for a quanutm particle, the MOST MINIMUM energy of a aprticle is not 0 so we dont know where the aprticle exists

9:34 the length that is pointed is the length between two peaks or two troughs standing wave denotes that a wave having some amplitude and normal complete wave kx but has no angular frequency, its like constant wave there is no change in velocity involved in it cos(kx - wt) = 1 and you get some value of velocuty NOW in a standing wave, there is no velocity so simply wt = 0 so kx - 0 = 0 or kx = 0 + 0 or kx = 0 its just moving no velocuty involved

7:53 when oyu draw the graph, you will see that the wave function [IF YOU DRAW A COSIN GRAPH, the wave graph will shift to the left but that means it ends up cos - 90 which converts to sin and sin + 90 will give cosine

this is everything that must be known from 2.1 to 2.4 in order' 1)THE DOUBLE SLIT EXPERIEMENT -> we have a photon gun where we are going to bombard the photon light towards the slits if the photon hits slit A, there will be some interferance detected at the direction of slit A so meaning bright and dark fringes of light on slit A having some internsity I1 if the photon hits slit B, there will be some interferance detected at the direction of slit B so meaning bright and dark fringes of light on slit B having some internsity I2 -> Combination of two intensiites is measured by the addition of two insities I1 and I2 [I1 + I2 = I] this is the general case 2) WHAT IF THERE WAS A QUANTUM PARTICLE before we step into this question, we must acknowledge that in any quantum realm, the wavefunction [PSI] is denoted and we can denote PSI1 = PSi1 e**(ialpha1) and PSI2 = PSi2 (e**(i*alpha2). ->for anyone who has done calculus, we know that exp(ix) can be denoted as [cos(x) + isin(x)] QUICK NOTE: THE PSI IN TERMS OF THE WAVE THAT IS DRAWN INDICATES THE AMPLITUDE SO PSI IN QM DENOTES INTENSITY IN CM -> UNLIKE THE CLASSICAL WHERE INTENSITY IS SET AND DISTINCTIVE, PSI, WHICH DENOTES THE INTENSITY IN RELATION TO QUANTUM DENOTES THE PROBABILITY WHERE SQUARING THE MAGNITUDE OF PSI WLIL OUTPUT THE PROBABILITY DENSITY -> SO IF WE WERE TO DENOTE T [SQUARE OF ANYTHING] OR FIND THE PROBABILITY DENSITY, WE WOULD SQUARE THE VALUE NOW ONE THING TO DENOTE IS PSI IS THE COMBINATION OF PSI1 + PSI2 JUST LIKE I = I1 + I2 IN CM, SO IF WE SQUARED (PSI1 + PSI2) WE WOULD DENOTE THAT AS [PSI1**2] + [2*P(PSI1)(PSI2)] + [PSI2**2 ] AND PSI1 AND PSI 2 ARE PSI1 = PSi1 e**(ialpha1) and PSI2 = PSi2 (e**(i*alpha2). RESPECTIVELY. 3) ANGLE PART ->f(x) = Asin(KX + WT + PHI) where WT AND PHI and removed because there is no time so the entire thing is 0 and THERE IS NO ROTATION ANGLE -> DR SHAZAD MENTIONED THAT Y**2 = Y* MULTIPLED Y AND Y**2 = Y*Y BECAUSE AS OF NOW Y HAD NO IMAGINARY VALUES SO IF THERE WERE [KET TO BRA, BRA TO KET, IOTA TO -IOTA] then you can change it what is probability density -> probability density simply is the area under the curve. In mathematical notion, we integrate the area under the graph between the two given points if for exapmle we said PSI1 = PSI1 e *ialpha1 and square of it will give (PSI1 e **ialpha1)*(PSI1 e *-ialpha1) which is the probability density. We will integrate this specific equation get an equation and you will have an exact value. Usually we would integrate based upon the shape of our curve. Sometimes we may encounter polar coordinates where we integrate the radius, theta angle [rotating sideways] and phi [rotating in the y direction if we look at x,y,z graph] or it could be cartesian plane where we integrate only in terms of r [first was triple integration and the second was single integration] -> maximum probabiliyu covers the entire graph where the probability is 100% or 1

please share the link, I can't find the GSAS-II

Plz sir continue ED ..

8:00 x-intercept you have found is not the true value, as y=0 line lies little bit above the horizontal axis of the graph. So Eg has to be slightly bigger than 2.8 eV. Moreover, the use of "Quick fit" tool is the right and practical way for linear fitting. It gives you two parameters slope (m) and y-intercept (y0) of the fitting line. Then, calculation of x-intercept (so of Eg) is straightforward: x0=-y0/m.

bro just wrote whole griffith portion

quite tired its 1 40am here extremely sorry

->Example of double slit experiemnet has been used where when a photon or any light [same thing as photons because light behaves both as particles and as waves] is bombarded through a particular slit, some wave will appear and same goes for B. Photon penetrating through slit A will output some intensity I1 and same goes for B will output some intensity I2. Combinatio of I1 and I2 will output a larger wave -> for anyone who has done ODE, we know that Ae ** kx will be denoted as cos(kx) + sin(kx) where if we were to draw a graph, sin axis would be an imaginary axis while the cosine axis would be the real axis. In general, the equation is Derived as Ae**kx where if we were to correlate this specific equation in terms of the doubel slit experiment, A would denote as the amplitude. PSI 1 = (PSI 1) e**iALPHA1 because we dont want a negative amplitude ans the same equation can be derived for PSI 2. To find the summation of (PS 1 + PSI 2 )**2 again shich will denote the probability density, it would outout the ((PSI1 + PSI2)** ) * (PSI 1 + PSI 2) conjugate denotes any ket notation turns to bra noation and vise versa, any imaginary value turns to negative imaginary value

Born's statistical interpretation of wavefunction 1) History: Lord kelvin -> "There is nothing new to be discovered, only that there must be accurate and precise measurements that must be done The question What is light sparked the birth of quantum mechanics. From here we know that light is a combination of electromagnetic waves oscillating perpendicular to each ohter -> Photo electric effect: the incident radiations that are quantized as photons are absorbed by the metal surface and based on thw colour a certain wavelength will be determined, and by the equation E = hc / LAMBDA we can determine the minimum energy required for the electrons to be emmited as reflected radiation -> The frequency is directly proportional to the energy per unit time per unit surface area or wavelength inversely proportional to the energy [er unit time per unit surface area De broglie wavelength: few key equations: E = hc / lambda E proportional to hBARomega hbar = h / 2pie omega = 2pie * (1 / t) lambda = h / p or lambda = h / mv mvLAMBDA = h mv = h / LAMBDA k denotes the number of waves [more specifically the standing waves] CLASSICAL VS QUANTUM In classical mechanics, an example has been drawn where a person is exerting force by moving a certain distance at a certain time. Based on the DETERMINISTIC distance and time covered, we are able to find the DETERMINISTIC required force. IN quantum however, it is a probabilistic this is why when we want to find the probability density, we are only finding the probability of where the particle exists or is located. To fully identify where the particle exists, we must perform real time experiment but theoretically, we will only find the probabiliy of where the particle exists QUANTUM MECHANICAL PARTICLE In quantum mechanics, the quantum particles or any quanutm notations are denoted by the shrodingers wave function PSI -> the time independant shrodinger wave equation is denoted by -ihBAR[curlPSI / curlT = ( (-hBAR)**2 / 2m ) * ( (curl)**2 PSI ) / (curl) (T)**2) which if we were to clasically determine the time indendant shrodinger wave equation, it wuld simply be HAMILTONIAN ENERGY WAVE FUNCTINON = CONSERVED ENERGY WAVE FUNCTION where the CONSERVED ENERGY WAVE FUNCTION is the summation of KE + PE where KE in terms of shrodinger equation is -hbar**2 / 2m smething smething and VPSI being PE PROOV FOR CONSERVATION OF ENERGY when stating that "The energy is conserved or constant it means that if we were to ahve some value [SOME CONSTANT VALUE] derivating the conserved energy would output 0 which is also the case for derivqting the potential energy and kinetic enertgy NOW THE MATH PART dT / dt denotes the change in kinetic energy per unit time dT is simplt the change in kinetic energy. Now how would we find the change in kinetic energy....SIMPLE, find some velocity v2, find some velocity v1 [we dont know those values so assume these are my values] 1/2m is constant throughout that never changes unless you have two different objects which the calculation is a whole nother circle 1/2m(v2)**2 - 1/2m(v1)**2 / dt 1/2m(v2**2 - v1**2) / dt can be denoted as 1/2m(v2 + v1)(v2 - v1) and on one side we have an average and on the other we have change in velocity. for dV is really almost the same thing. I am trying my best to summarize all those stuff as i didnt recap these lectures for quite a while

Born's statistical interpretation of wavefunction 1) History: Lord kelvin -> "There is nothing new to be discovered, only that there must be accurate and precise measurements that must be done The question What is light sparked the birth of quantum mechanics. From here we know that light is a combination of electromagnetic waves oscillating perpendicular to each ohter -> Photo electric effect: the incident radiations that are quantized as photons are absorbed by the metal surface and based on thw colour a certain wavelength will be determined, and by the equation E = hc / LAMBDA we can determine the minimum energy required for the electrons to be emmited as reflected radiation -> The frequency is directly proportional to the energy per unit time per unit surface area or wavelength inversely proportional to the energy [er unit time per unit surface area De broglie wavelength: few key equations: E = hc / lambda E proportional to hBARomega hbar = h / 2pie omega = 2pie * (1 / t) lambda = h / p or lambda = h / mv mvLAMBDA = h mv = h / LAMBDA k denotes the number of waves [more specifically the standing waves] CLASSICAL VS QUANTUM In classical mechanics, an example has been drawn where a person is exerting force by moving a certain distance at a certain time. Based on the DETERMINISTIC distance and time covered, we are able to find the DETERMINISTIC required force. IN quantum however, it is a probabilistic this is why when we want to find the probability density, we are only finding the probability of where the particle exists or is located. To fully identify where the particle exists, we must perform real time experiment but theoretically, we will only find the probabiliy of where the particle exists ENTIRE LECTURE NOTES

Good job 👏👏

I have begun QM again due to 1) My role in working as a TA for QM

Thank you very much. You save me too :)

Life saver!

Thank you Prof. and Happy Eid Adha

Can you please tell me about birch mornhagen equation of state fitting... Thanks ✨

Thank you so much respected sir❤ I read in affiliated college with university can we use da the university name and email ID or college ?

Vedio quality bht gnde a

Sir, I have a double lead-free halide perovskite compound, but it lacks lattice parameters and x, y, z positions. Can I determine these values using this software?

Thank you I really appreciate you for making these Lectures ,They are really helping me in my Learning I wish you and your family the best wishes. Mohamed

Sir in the cross-product component form, why is it automatically minus (-) in the y component?

I am a Chemistry undergrad, planning to take Applied Physics. Thank you sir for your lectures, I am reviewing for my incoming diagnostic exam. Your lectures help a lot